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PCCET Updated Exam Dumps [2024] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question
The PCCET certification exam is a vendor-neutral certification, meaning that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes it an excellent option for professionals who want to gain a foundational understanding of cybersecurity concepts and principles before specializing in a particular technology or solution. PCCET exam is also recognized by employers across various industries, making it a valuable credential for job seekers.
How to prepare for the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification Exam:
Preparation is the key to success in any exam. Candidates must understand all the syllabus before writing the exam. Candidates must ensure that they have a clear understanding of all the topics mentioned in the syllabus.
Candidates must prepare themselves properly for the Palo Alto Networks PCCET Certification exam. Candidates can check out below some of the most important points to remember while preparing for the exam. Candidates must read through the syllabus thoroughly before writing the exam.
Practice a lot to reduce stress and improve your concentration level. Candidates must use the study techniques that they are comfortable with.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
- A. AutoFocus
- B. MineMeld
- C. Expedition
- D. Cortex XDR
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 21
Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?
- A. Shortest Path
- B. Path Vector
- C. Hop Count
- D. Split Horizon
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A. NFS
- B. SNMP
- C. UDP
- D. MAC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and end-to-end transmission control.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
- A. worm
- B. Trojan horse
- C. virus
- D. ransomware
Answer: A
Explanation:
A worm replicates through the network while a virus replicates, not necessarily to spread through the network.
NEW QUESTION # 24
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
- A. platform
- B. data
- C. infrastructure
- D. physical
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 25
A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
- A. PaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. CaaS
- D. IaaS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 26
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
- A. Security
- B. Cloud
- C. Management
- D. Network
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the purpose of SIEM?
- A. Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access
- B. Securing cloud-based applications
- C. Automating the security team's incident response
- D. Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A. NFS
- B. SNMP
- C. UDP
- D. MAC
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
- A. d.Authentication Header (AH)
- B. Split tunneling
- C. Diffie-Hellman groups
- D. IKE Security Association
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?
- A. User-ID
- B. Device-ID
- C. App-ID
- D. Content-ID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
App-ID™ technology leverages the power of the broad global community to provide continuous identification, categorization, and granular risk-based control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications, ensuring new applications are discovered automatically as they become popular.
NEW QUESTION # 31
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
- A. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline
- B. DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline
- C. DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment
- D. DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment
Answer: A
Explanation:
DevSecOps takes the concept behind DevOps that developers and IT teams should work together closely, instead of separately, throughout software delivery and extends it to include security and integrate automated checks into the full CI/CD pipeline. The integration of the CI/CD pipeline takes care of the problem of security seeming like an outside force and instead allows developers to maintain their usual speed without compromising data security
NEW QUESTION # 32
What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)
- A. Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS
- B. Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network
- C. Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location
- D. Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments
- E. Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Simplicity: Because each device is centrally managed, with routing based on application policies, WAN managers can create and update security rules in real time as network requirements change. Also, when SD-WAN is combined with zero-touch provisioning, a feature that helps automate the deployment and configuration processes, organizations can further reduce the complexity, resources, and operating expenses required to spin up new sites. * Improved performance: By allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without the need to backhaul traffic to centralized locations, organizations can provide a better user experience.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
- A. control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
- B. control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
- C. control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
- D. control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
Answer: D
Explanation:
page 211 "Consolidating servers within trust levels: Organizations often consolidate servers within the same trust level into a single virtual computing environment: ... ... ... This virtual systems capability enables a single physical device to be used to simultaneously meet the unique requirements of multiple VMs or groups of VMs. Control and protection of inter-host traffic with physical network security appliances that are properly positioned and configured is the primary security focus."
NEW QUESTION # 34
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Packet
- B. Frame
- C. Segment
- D. Data
Answer: A
Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Anthem server breaches disclosed Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from a number of its servers. The infiltration by hackers was attributed to which type of vulnerability?
- A. an intranet-accessed contractor's system that was compromised
- B. a phishing scheme that captured a database administrator's password
- C. exploitation of an unpatched security vulnerability
- D. access by using a third-party vendor's password
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A. 192.168.19.64
- B. 192.168.19.32
- C. 192.168.19.0
- D. 192.168.19.16
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?
- A. East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic
- B. All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network
- C. East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4
- D. East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 38
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
- A. enables on-demand network services
- B. defines any network service
- C. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
- D. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud computing is not a location but rather a pool of resources that can be rapidly provisioned in an automated, on-demand manner.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?
- A. VPN Concentrator
- B. Web Application Zone
- C. Content Identification
- D. Segmentation Platform
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?
- A. Statistical-based
- B. Knowledge-based
- C. Behavior-based
- D. Anomaly-based
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A knowledge-based system uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts. These types of systems have lower false-alarm rates than behavior-based systems but must be continually updated with new attack signatures to be effective.
A behavior-based system uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt.
These types of systems are more adaptive than knowledge-based systems and therefore may be more effective in detecting previously unknown vulnerabilities and attacks, but they have a much higher false-positive rate than knowledge-based systems.
NEW QUESTION # 41
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The PCCET certification exam is a 60-minute, multiple-choice exam that consists of 40 questions. PCCET exam is proctored and can be taken online or in-person at a designated test center. The passing score for the exam is 70%. PCCET exam fee is $100, and the certification is valid for two years. PCCET exam is available in several languages, including English, Japanese, Korean, and Simplified Chinese.
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